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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

09.06.2025 04:28

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

How do you explain the involvement of a mainland Chinese visitor, her local relative, and a 65-year-old friend of the latter in the suspected money laundering case seized by Hong Kong police?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

There's no rule.

Has Great Britain ever been considered a "hyper-power" like the United States or Russia are currently considered? If not, why?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What are 50 random facts about yourself?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.